John Polonis
1 min readJul 1, 2024

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Hank, that term is based on the fact all of America's democratic institutions - primarily the courts - found NO EVIDENCE of election interference, and certainly nothing that could have had a material impact on the 2020 election results in Trump's favor.

So if that's not "baseless", what is? Instead of ~60 court cases that Trump lost, should he have lost over 100 to make you more comfortable with that term?

Look, I'm a lawyer and I believe in courts of law and facts. It's what American democracy is rooted in. Trump's blabbering is often funny and clearly persuades many, but once you step into a courtroom, you have a burden of proof to meet. Juries must follow instructions based in law, not Trump's desires.

If Trump had won even ONE of those cases, I would not have used "baseless." But the reality is he lost EVERY SINGLE ONE. And if you're going to point me to any other evidence, please tell me how and why that was not considered or why it was dismissed in any of those numerous court cases.

So in your words: I'm not "fucking around" with terms. I write seriously. I hope you and others take the reality of Trump and his situation seriously too.

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